Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 10:47
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How did you as a human being change while growing up?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
What is one thing you've learned from life?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.